Picture only because I had to via this comm’s posting rules. (???)
The verb run is only conjugated as “ran” in the simple past tense, as in:
- I ran a mile.
- He ran the company.
For literally every other conjugation of that verb, you should use “run.”
It baffles me that ran has somehow overtaken the other, much more (historically) common, much more appropriate, conjugation of “run,” which applies to most situations where you have a helper verb like to be or to have:
- I did run a mile
- He did run the company
- I have run a mile
- He has run the company
- I would have run…
- I might have run…
- I will have run…
This applies to a lot of other verbs with similar vowel changes like sing/sang/sung, ring/rang/rung, etc. In general, if you’re using an irregular/strong verb that has an “a” in it, it is only meant for simple past tense.
Now, all of this is really only appropriate for when you’re meaning to sound professional nowadays, since simple past tense is overtaking all those other verb conjugations. But for now, it’s still a good YSK.
Says who? -er- According to whom?
Is this so you can show superiority? Separate those pesky lower classes out? Language is spoken the way it is spoken and it changes. “have ran” is something that would have gotten me yelled at as a kid and it, honestly, is still kinda grating. However, it’s not my business. If I can understand that speaker, language is doing its job.
Don’t worry about the preposition thing. It’s not a rule in English grammar. It’s a rule of Latin that gets attributed to English by posh gits trying to sound clever.