Voting regulation is not a power expressed to Congress (except as related to ensuring no bias in race, age, and gender), so his unilateral action has no basis in law. But, when has a basis in law ever applied to him? Lawful grounds such as ‘consent’ has never applied to him before. Why would it now?
We’re gonna need a lot of folk from the communuty watching theirs and their neighbor’s polling locations just like any other
fledglingfailing democtaciesHere’s a search that’ll hopefully help you find where to volunteer for your local elections if you have the time. There might be a general strike that day so hooefully you can get the day off, or atleast leave work early. If you can’t encourage a cool older relative who never ratted you out to your parents. https://duckduckgo.com/?q=how+to+volunteer+at+your+poll&t=fpas&ia=web
How to organize a rapid response from a very high level with further detailed resources. https://southerncoalition.org/resources/rapid-response-101/
Good general advice on organizing, also a good resource to find groups near you that are likely aligned. https://www.fiftyfifty.one/organizer-resources