In social media posts on Friday, the president said that if Congress failed to approve legislation mandating voter ID, he would issue an executive order.

Voting regulation is not a power expressed to Congress (except as related to ensuring no bias in race, age, and gender), so his unilateral action has no basis in law. But, when has a basis in law ever applied to him? Lawful grounds such as ‘consent’ has never applied to him before. Why would it now?

  • I_Jedi@lemmy.todayEnglish
    282·
    18 hours ago

    Ah, I can see it now.

    • ICE shows up to a purple state voting place on election day.
    • Election monitor says they can’t be there.
    • “Let us in or we kill you for probable cause of terrorism”
    • Someone calls in the neighborhood watch/militia.
    • Someone else calls the cops, thinking they’ll help.
    • ICE barricades the voting place, taking the people inside hostage.
    • Militia and police units outside are locked in a standoff.
    • ICE kills a hostage “for being a terrorist”.
    • Three way fight between ICE, the cops, and the militia.
    • Cops and ICE ultimately overwhelm the militia with superior firepower. A few cops are injured by ICE by accident.
    • Thoughts and prayers are sent.
    • Democrat votes are tossed out in other voting places by ICE for being “terrorist votes”.
    • GOP retains House and Senate with huge lead.