In social media posts on Friday, the president said that if Congress failed to approve legislation mandating voter ID, he would issue an executive order.

Voting regulation is not a power expressed to Congress (except as related to ensuring no bias in race, age, and gender), so his unilateral action has no basis in law. But, when has a basis in law ever applied to him? Lawful grounds such as ‘consent’ has never applied to him before. Why would it now?

  • A_norny_mousse@piefed.zipEnglish
    12·
    15 hours ago

    “If we can’t get it through Congress, there are Legal reasons why this SCAM is not permitted. I will be presenting them shortly, in the form of an Executive Order”

    I’m speechless.