Voting regulation is not a power expressed to Congress (except as related to ensuring no bias in race, age, and gender), so his unilateral action has no basis in law. But, when has a basis in law ever applied to him? Lawful grounds such as ‘consent’ has never applied to him before. Why would it now?
I don’t even understand the rhetoric on both sides here. If he puts out an EO about elections? Tough titties. Zero legal force. No court case or nothing needed. The federal executive does not have authority over state matters, full stop, end of, simpoo avv, innit, an’all, est fin, etc.
It would be like me issuing a declaration that everyone must suck my dick.
Him putting out an executive order to do so is all
I.C.E.MAGA needs to justify lynchings.Guess there will be some counter lynching then. I seen someone trying to intimidate voters outside, I’m going to shoot them, and walk over their corpse to vote.
Lynch who? Voters?
Anyone he says.