Voting regulation is not a power expressed to Congress (except as related to ensuring no bias in race, age, and gender), so his unilateral action has no basis in law. But, when has a basis in law ever applied to him? Lawful grounds such as ‘consent’ has never applied to him before. Why would it now?

  • NutWrench@lemmy.ml
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    10 hours ago

    Trump doesn’t get to say shit about how the states run their elections. Even if he “Hereby Do Dee-clares” it. /s