Voting regulation is not a power expressed to Congress (except as related to ensuring no bias in race, age, and gender), so his unilateral action has no basis in law. But, when has a basis in law ever applied to him? Lawful grounds such as ‘consent’ has never applied to him before. Why would it now?
I think the issue is you assume it will be enforced universally. It won’t. It will be dependent on the makeup of the district and the color of the individual voter. It will be up to individuals at polling stations (and any ICE present) whether ‘exceptions’ can be made for people that are ‘obviously citizens but forgot their ID’. Or whether a married woman’s name mismatch is an issue or not based on her skin/hair color and way of speaking. It’s going to be selectively enforced, by design
That would be clearly illegal. The courts have have to go along with it, in which case we have bigger problems