In social media posts on Friday, the president said that if Congress failed to approve legislation mandating voter ID, he would issue an executive order.

Voting regulation is not a power expressed to Congress (except as related to ensuring no bias in race, age, and gender), so his unilateral action has no basis in law. But, when has a basis in law ever applied to him? Lawful grounds such as ‘consent’ has never applied to him before. Why would it now?

  • CharlesDarwin@lemmy.worldEnglish
    2·
    6 hours ago

    If this stupid asshole fucks up our awesome voting system (mail-in, thank you very fucking much) in Colorado, he’s going to be even more hated than he is already.